"Without an underlying crime (Mueller knew 22 mos ago there was none0, there could be no obstruction."-johnfibs
This is utterly untrue. Even Barr admitted as much in his testimony before Congress.
johnforbes either never attended law school, or else he was absent the day "obstruction" was taught.
"Obstructing Justice Under Federal Jurisdiction
Obstruction of justice is defined by federal statute as any "interference with the orderly administration of law and justice" and governed by 18 U.S.C. §§ 1501-1521. Federal code identifies more than 20 specific types of obstruction, including "Obstruction of proceedings before departments, agencies, and committees" (18 U.S.C. § 1505), the specific code section cited in the Nixon and Clinton articles of impeachment.
Other ways an individual may commit this offense include, but are not limited to, the following acts:
Influencing or injuring an officer or juror generally (18 U.S.C. § 1503)
Obstruction of criminal investigations (18 U.S.C. § 1510)
Tampering with a witness, victim, or an informant (18 U.S.C. § 1512)
Retaliating against a witness, victim, or an informant (18 U.S.C. § 1513)
Destruction of corporate audit records (18 U.S.C. § 1520)
The crime can take any number of forms, whether it's bribery, tampering with evidence, lying to investigators, abusing one's power, or some other act intended to impede a criminal investigation. The federal obstruction of justice statute is written broadly and focuses more on the effect (or intended effect) of a particular action rather than the specific act itself. Therefore, seemingly innocuous acts could be construed as criminal activity if they have the intended effect of impeding justice."-
https://criminal.findlaw.com/criminal-c ... stice.html
johnforbes will now produce jack shit to support his frivolous claim.
- By johnforbes